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| Re: A honest cultural question... (26863) | |||
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Re: A honest cultural question... |
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Posted by JPC on Sat Apr 23 15:31:21 2005, in response to Re: A honest cultural question..., posted by Charles G on Fri Apr 22 21:44:56 2005. Yes. The variance of the mean of N samples is 1/N the variance of each individual sample. The standard deviation, which is the "plus or minus" business, goes as the square root of the variance.So it depends what the variance (that is the uncertainty between one trial and the next) of an individual score is, which I imagine is pretty small. |
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